The Nature of Truth

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Pilate said to Him, "So You are a king?" Jesus answered, "You say correctly that I am a king. For this I have been born, and for this I have come into the world, to testify to the truth. Everyone who is of the truth hears My voice." Pilate said to Him, "What is truth?"
— John 18:37-38b

If you used to be in the UPC then let me ask you, How many times have you heard someone say that they are thankful "for the Truth"? Or perhaps they said that they were thankful that God revealed "the Truth" to them. Or maybe they talked about how anointed a non-UPC singer or minister was, and then they said that it was a shame that the person they were talking about "did not have the Truth."

I used to hear those statements all the time! I think that we all have. But I am one of those people who likes to ask "Why" about everything. As a matter of fact, one of my favorite quotes says this:

"Millions saw the apple fall, but Newton was the one who asked why" (Bernard Baruch).

One of the things that many Christians do is rattle off a Scripture or a phrase without stopping to think about what it actually means. I think that we all do that; that’s certainly not something that’s limited to the UPC! But one thing that you do hear the UPC talk a lot about is "having the Truth." So in this article I want to examine this question: What does it mean for something to be true? Once I have investigated the meaning of truth then I will look at two central UPC doctrines to see whether or not they really are "true."

Now, a lot of people might be thinking that I’m silly for asking what it means for something to be true. After all, if something is true then it is…true! But what does that word mean? More specifically, how does the word apply to us Christians?

One good definition of truth is that it is consistent and it corresponds to reality. That is the definition that my systematic theology professor repeated until we practically had it coming out our ears! And it is certainly a good definition. Notice that the definition says that truth corresponds to reality, not to itself. The reason it says that is because there are plenty of people who teach and believe that truth just needs to correspond to itself. The problem with this is obvious: If a person starts with an untrue starting point then the rest of their system (whatever it might be) will also be untrue.

My philosophy professor used evolution as an example of a view of truth that corresponds with itself instead of corresponding to reality. He called it a "mesh" system, meaning that if any one point of it was proven false then a new theory was made to account for the portion that was proven false. In other words, there’s no way to prove evolution false to someone who believes strongly in the theory. Why? Because it corresponds with itself, even though many scientists would argue that the actual points of the theory are incorrect. (I believe that the UPC also has a "mesh" view of truth, but that is not the subject that I am discussing in this article!)

The point is this: There is more than one view of truth and knowledge that exists in the world today. For instance, many different religions believe that there is no one correct way to God; they believe that all paths are equally valid1. The Christian view stands in opposition to this because it claims that Jesus is the only way to God, but the religious pluralist responds by saying that the Christian view is right for the Christians but the Muslim view is right for the Muslims, etc.

So with that in mind let us return to the original question: What is truth?

Well, as I already said, my systematic theology professor defined truth as that which is consistent and corresponds with reality. I do believe that is a very good view of truth, so I want to use that for a starting point and break this subject down a little farther. Specifically, I want to explain why truth must be consistent and why it must correspond with itself. To do this we must look at three fundamental laws of logic. These are:

  1. The law of non-contradiction
  2. The law of the excluded middle
  3. The law of identity

Please bear with me here! I know it’s easy to zone out as soon as someone writes or says "fundamental laws," but this is important to understanding exactly what truth is! And I promise that it’s not that complicated either. Actually, these three laws are very simple and even intuitive.

The law of non-contradiction simply says: Something cannot both be and not be at the same time and in the same respect. Example: Something cannot be green and not green at the same time and in the same way. That’s pretty simple, right? Similarly, I cannot be in my chair and out of my chair at this very moment in time. I am sitting in my chair, and it’s impossible for me to not be sitting in my chair at the same time.

The second law, the law of the excluded middle, says: Something either is or is not. In other words, something either exists or it does not exist. Something cannot exist and not exist at the same time. Very simple and intuitive!

Finally, the law of identity says: Something is what it is. This is very similar to the first law. Something cannot be what it is and what it is not at the same time.

These laws seem very intuitive (and they are) but the reason they are given names is because they serve as a starting point for all discussions. Even if a person does not know the laws by name they know them intuitively. Furthermore, these laws cannot be refuted. It’s impossible! Why? Because a person must use one the laws in order to refute the laws! Give it a try, it’s kind of fun! (I tried it when my philosophy professor presented these laws to us, and I found out that they are impossible to refute. I guess all those Ph.D.’s were right after all; at least on this point.)

Now that I’ve given these three laws let me bring it to a practical level by looking briefly at the UPC’s view of baptism. The UPC view of baptism is that a person must be baptized in the Name of Jesus in order to be saved2. However, it is my experience that many people in the UPC find it hard to accept the idea that God is sending almost every believer for the last 2,000 years to hell because they were baptized the wrong way. So, when backed into a corner, many in the UPC will say something like this:

"I refuse to put anyone in hell; I believe that God might let people into Heaven if they were baptized in the Titles and that was all they knew, but if they see the necessity of being baptized in the Name of Jesus and they refuse to obey ‘the Truth’ then they are responsible for their disobedience."

That statement sounds really good on the surface, but let’s apply the fundamental laws of logic to it. First, this statement is effectively saying that "the Truth" only becomes true once a person sees that it is true.

Think about that for a moment.That is like saying that the speed limit in front of my apartment only becomes 30 miles per hour when I see the sign, and that if I do not see that it is 30 miles per hour then the speed limit does not exist (or that it is not 30 miles per hour). See the fallacy? If the speed limit is 30 miles per hour then it is 30 miles per hour whether or not I realize that it is. In the same way, if baptism in the Name of Jesus is necessary for salvation then it is necessary whether or not a person realizes that it is. On the other hand, if a person can get into Heaven without being baptized in the Name of Jesus then baptism in the Name of Jesus is not necessary for salvation.

Put quite simply: Baptism in the Name of Jesus cannot simultaneously be necessary and unnecessary at the same time.

I believe that the illustration I just gave makes it easier to understand why the three fundamental laws of logic are so important! A doctrine or belief can sound really good on the surface, but it might not hold up when put to the logical test.

For instance, earlier in this article I commented on the Hindu believe that all paths to God are equally valid. This is what Dr. Norman Geisler has to say about that idea in his book "Worlds Apart: A Handbook on World Views" (the italics and bold print are added by me for emphasis):

How does one decide on a world view? They cannot all be true, for they hold mutually exclusive views on many essential points. For example, atheism and theism cannot both be true, for atheism affirms that “God does not exist” and theism affirms that “God does exist.” Likewise, God cannot be both finite (finite godism) and infinite (theism). Nor can miracles be possible (theism) and impossible (deism, atheism). The opposite of truth is falsehood. Hence, if one view is true, then the opposite must be false, unless, of course, one claims that there is no such thing as truth. But the problem with such a statement is that it claims to be true, thereby defeating its own claim that nothing is true3.

The last sentence is the most important. Did you catch the problem that Dr. Geisler is pointing out? He is saying that when a person says that all truths are equally valid (such as the pluralist belief that all paths lead to God) then they are claiming absolutely that there is no absolute truth! In other words, they are breaking the law of non-contradiction because they are claiming that there are absolutely no absolutes! They are making a statement that they claim is true, but the statement claims that there can be no truth!

So the pluralist claim that all paths lead to God sounds very good, just like it sounds good when someone in the UPC claims that baptism in Jesus’ Name only becomes necessary once a person realizes it is necessary. But when put to the test we find that both of these views are equally impossible from a logical standpoint. Of course, a person can still choose to believe these things, but they need to recognize that they are believing them purely because of faith and that there is no logical basis (nor can there be) for their view.

So let me summarize what we have covered so far, and then we will move on to examining two central UPC doctrines to see whether or not they are true.

For a general definition of truth I have chosen the definition given by my systematic theology professor: Truth is that which is consistent and corresponds to reality. For the rest of this article I am going to use a more specific definition for determining biblical truth:

Biblical truth is that which is consistent and does not conflict with other Scripture.

With that definition in mind let’s look at two UPC beliefs to see whether or not they are true. In other words, let’s see if these two beliefs are consistent and do not conflict with other Scripture.

The first belief that I have chosen to examine is the belief that a person must repent in order to be saved. The official UPC position says:

Luke 13:5…reads, "Except ye repent, ye shall all likewise perish". [sic] Plainly, then, the tragic alternative to repentance is eternal perdition4.

The question that we need to ask is this: Does the UPC belief that a person needs to repent of their sins in order to be saved contradict other Scriptures? Specifically, does that belief contradict other Scriptures such as Acts 2:21 and Romans 10:13, which say that everyone who calls on the Name of the Lord will be saved?

On the surface it appears that there is a contradiction, but I am convinced that this contradiction is only an apparent one. I feel that repentance is indeed necessary for salvation. The reason that I believe this is simple: It is impossible to accept Jesus as Savior if a person does not believe that they are in need of saving. In other words, if I do not realize that I am a sinner then why would I call on the Name of the Lord and ask Him for salvation?

On top of this, Jesus commanded repentance (cf. Mat. 4:17, Luke 13:5). If a person blatantly refuses to obey Jesus and repent then I propose that they do not truly believe He is Lord. When a person truly accepts that someone is their Lord then it requires that they admit that they are not Lord. Put bluntly, the most difficult barrier to getting people to come to Christ is getting them to admit that He is God and that they are not.

So, once again, I do not believe there is a real contradiction between the UPC view that repentance is necessary for salvation and the Scriptures that say that a person just needs to call upon the Name of the Lord to be saved. I am convinced that calling on the Name of the Lord involves repentance, so the contradiction is only apparent, not real.

The score is therefore 1-0 for the UPC.Now let us look at another doctrine that is central to the UPC: The doctrine that says that speaking in tongues is necessary for salvation.

(Before I begin I should point out that the UPC view is that the Holy Ghost is necessary for salvation, and on this point I agree with them, just like every other evangelical Christian does. However, speaking in tongues is synonymous with the Holy Ghost to the UPC (since they believe that the initial evidence of receiving the Holy Ghost is that a person speaks in tongues5), so that is why I say that I am examining the UPC doctrine that says that speaking in tongues is necessary for salvation.)

The UPC uses three Scripture passages to "prove" that speaking in tongues is the evidence of receiving the Holy Ghost: Acts 2:1-4, Acts 10:44-48, and Acts 19:1-66. From these three passages the UPC extracts the doctrine that "The initial, outward evidence [of receiving the Holy Ghost] is speaking in tongues, which means speaking miraculously in languages the speaker does not know7."

But is this doctrine true, or does it contradict other Scripture? Specifically, does it contradict 1 Cor. 12:28-30, which says:

1Co 12:28-30 (NASB, bold print added for emphasis)
(28)  And God has appointed in the church, first apostles, second prophets, third teachers, then miracles, then gifts of healings, helps, administrations, various kinds of tongues.
(29)  All are not apostles, are they? All are not prophets, are they? All are not teachers, are they? All are not workers of miracles, are they?
(30)  All do not have gifts of healings, do they? All do not speak with tongues, do they? All do not interpret, do they?

It is obvious from the context that Paul is asking rhetorical questions and that the answer to each question is "No." It is very important that Paul did not ask, "All do not have the gift of tongues"; Instead, he asked, "All do not speak with tongues, do they?" (This is a crucial difference since the UPC believes that Paul was talking about the gift of tongues in this passage, which the UPC believes is separate from "tongues as the initial evidence of the Holy Ghost." It is my opinion that if every believer who received the Holy Ghost was speaking in tongues then Paul never would have worded his question in the matter that he did. His goal was to cut down on confusion in the church at Corinth, not add to it!)

So at this point in the discussion the UPC has three Scripture passages that they claim are examples of people speaking in tongues when they initially received the gift of the Holy Ghost. From this they extrapolate the doctrine that all believers speak in tongues when they receive the Holy Ghost. In contrast to this we have a direct statement from Paul saying that all believers do not speak with tongues.

This definitely appears to be a true contradiction, but let us keep looking.

The question that we need to ask next is this: Are there any examples of people being filled with the Holy Ghost or receiving the Holy Ghost when they did not speak with tongues? Interestingly enough, there is one example: Paul himself.

Act 9:17-19a NASB (bold print added for emphasis)
(17)  So Ananias departed and entered the house, and after laying his hands on him said, "Brother Saul, the Lord Jesus, who appeared to you on the road by which you were coming, has sent me so that you may regain your sight and be filled with the Holy Spirit."
(18)  And immediately there fell from his eyes something like scales, and he regained his sight, and he got up and was baptized;
(19)  and he took food and was strengthened.

Apparently Ananias did not plan on wasting any time. He walked in the door and told Paul that he had been sent for two reasons: 1) that Paul would regain his sight and 2) that Paul would be filled with the Holy Spirit. Then Ananias gets right down to business; he lays his hands on Paul and Paul’s vision is restored. Then what happened? Paul got baptized. Then what happened? He ate a meal.

And that’s it.

No mention of tongues.

So it appears that the UPC’s claim that "Speaking with other tongues has been connected with Spirit baptism since the beginning of the church age"8 commits the sin of omission by failing to include every applicable example of people being filled with the Holy Ghost. It is also interesting that there is no mention of any of the (approximately) 3,000 believers baptized on the Day of Pentecost speaking in tongues (Acts 2:41).

(Another example of someone being filled with the Holy Ghost and not speaking in tongues is when John the Baptist was filled with the Holy Ghost. According to Luke 1:15 he was filled with the Spirit while still in his mother’s womb, and, while it is possible that he spokes in tongues, I find it rather unlikely.)

Also, on closer inspection of the UPC’s "proof Scriptures" for tongues being the initial evidence of a person receiving the Holy Ghost we find that one of the passages does not even qualify! Which one? Acts 19:1-6. The careful reader will note that the passage does not say that the 12 disciples were filled with the Holy Ghost, it says that the Holy Ghost came upon them. This seems like a small difference, but it is a very important one. It was quite common all throughout the Old Testament for the Holy Spirit to "come upon" a person or group of people, yet we know from John 7:39 that the Spirit was not given until Jesus was glorified. (For examples of the Holy Ghost coming upon people in the Old Testament see the following Scriptures: Numbers 11:25, 24:2, Judges 3:10, 6:34, 11:29, 14:6, 14:19, 15:14, 1 Samuel 10:10, 11:6, 16:13, 19:20, 19:23, 1 Chronicles 12:18, 2 Chronicles 20:14.)

Finally, we have Paul’s statement in 1 Corinthians 14:22 which says that tongues is a sign to the unbeliever, not the believer. The UPC view of tongues stands in direct opposition to Paul’s statement, because the UPC teaches that tongues is the initial evidence to the believer (and by extension to those around him or her) that they have received the Holy Ghost. So the UPC makes tongues a sign to the believer when it is actually meant to be a sign to the unbeliever.

So, to summarize, we actually have two Scripture passages showing where people spoke in tongues when they received the Holy Ghost (Acts 2:1-6 and Acts 10:44-48). In contrast to this we have a direct statement by Paul saying that not all believers speak in tongues (1 Cor. 12:30) and the absence of any record of Paul himself speaking in tongues when he received the Holy Ghost. Last but not least, we have the fact that tongues is supposed to be a sign to the unbeliever, not the believer.

In light of all of this evidence I am forced to conclude that there is a real contradiction between the UPC view and the biblical view of tongues. In other words, the UPC view of tongues is consistent with itself but it is not consistent with the entirety of Scripture. The fact that the UPC view is consistent with itself makes it sound very good, but when the entirety of Scripture is examined then one finds out that the UPC view is not consistent with the rest of Scripture.

So the score is now UPC 1 – Bible 1.

What can we learn from all of this? Well, if you are reading this article and you have never taken a philosophy course or a course in logic then you probably learned that an idea that seems so simple (like truth) can actually be quite complicated! In all seriousness, though, I am hoping that those who read this article will have a better idea of what truth actually is and that they will know how to apply the basic principles of logic to other doctrines and teachings to find out whether or not they are correct.

It is my hope and prayer that readers will always remember to check out the entirety of Scripture when examining doctrines to find out whether or not the doctrine conflicts with itself logically and whether or not it conflicts with other Scripture.

References:

  1. This is known as "religious pluralism" []
  2. "Why We Baptize In Jesus’ Name", Accessed 8/12/2007 []
  3. Worlds Apart: A Handbook On World Views". Geisler, Norman L., Watkins, William D []
  4. "Except Ye Repent", Accessed 8/12/2007 []
  5. "The Gift of the Holy Ghost", Accessed 8/12/2007 []
  6. Ibid. []
  7. Ibid. []
  8. Ibid. []

16 thoughts on “The Nature of Truth

  1. Angela

    I have a question on your article. My question to you is not a challange, it is a question. I’m not sure what to make of it.

    You talked about the Holy Ghost not being given until Jesus was glorified and mentioned that Acts states that it “came upon them.” A few lines up though, you’ve mentioned that John the Baptist was FILLED with the Holy Ghost while still inside his mother’s womb.
    I would agree that he probably didn’t likely speak in tongues, but there is the difference in the wording. Could you give me your thoughts?

    Thanks,
    Angela

    1. Josh (Site Admin) Post author

      Angela,

      Apologies for the delayed reply. I was camping over the weekend. Also, please don’t worry about asking questions! They’re insightful and I enjoy answering them.

      You asked a great question, and different people will give you different answers to it. The view that I’m about to give to you is the one that I hold, but I admit that there are other possible answers.

      When the Bible talks about the Holy Ghost being given to humanity it is talking about the baptism of the Holy Spirit. On the other hand, when it talks about the Holy Ghost “coming upon” someone or “filling” them it is not necessarily talking about Spirit baptism. For example, Acts 4 talks about Peter and John and a group of believers being filled with the Holy Spirit, yet it’s clear that these people were already baptized in the Spirit. (To clarify, Spirit baptism is something that happens to all believers (Eph. 1:13) and it places us into the body of Christ (1 Cor. 12:13). Many people, including myself, view Spirit baptism as a one-time thing but Spirit filling as something that can happen many times during the life of the believer.)

      Your question is a very good one, and I think it comes from the confusion surrounding the phrase “filled with the Holy Spirit.” In the UPC and many other denominations we use that phrase interchangeably with “baptized with the Holy Spirit.” The New Testament also sometimes uses the term interchangeably. However, the phrases do not always mean the same thing. The meaning has to be taken from the context of the Scripture that it is used in. In the case of Luke 1:15, I suspect that John was filled with the Holy Spirit and empowered to do God’s work. However, since the Spirit had not yet been given, I do not think that he was baptized in the Spirit. I interpret the passage as being similar to the Holy Spirit “coming upon” someone in the Old Testament.

      Another possible view is that God did baptize John with the Holy Spirit. I firmly believe that God can do whatever He wants as long as it does not violate His character, so I try to shy away from saying that God couldn’t have done something! I don’t have a Bible in front of me right now, but I can’t think of any Scripture that says that God couldn’t baptize someone with the Holy Spirit before Pentecost (although John himself did speak of Spirit baptism as a future occurrence when he prophesied about Jesus). The fact that the Holy Spirit was not yet given to humanity as a whole does not necessarily mean that God could not have chosen to give it to a single individual in order to empower that individual to do His work.

      One final point about Acts 19: I do think that the Holy Spirit “coming upon” John’s disciples was synonymous with them being baptized in the Holy Spirit. I only pointed out the difference in wording to show that it is ambiguous and someone could make the argument that it is not referring to Spirit baptism. In other words, Acts 19 cannot be used as a definite example of tongues accompanying Spirit baptism. Probable, yes, but not definite enough to base an entire theology of salvation around!

      I hope that helps!

      Edit: You may find this article interesting: http://christiananswers.net/q-acb/acb-t004.html. I’m not familiar with the site so I can’t speak for the accuracy of other articles, but this particular one is a great explanation of Spirit baptism.

      In Christ,
      – Josh S.

  2. Pingback: Resources for 1 Corinthians 12:10 - 11

  3. Leaning on GOD

    Josh,

    My husband and I are in the process of leaving the UPC, and like you experienced, it is the hardest thing I’ve ever had to do. I truly believe that without God using the United Pentecostal Church, my husband wouldn’t be alive, and I would be so far from God. I praise God for being able to move and work in ANY thing or place for HIS glory!

    From Day 1 of my journey in the UPC, I have been told that we have the Truth. And to even question it shows a contrite spirit, and allows the devil to get in and work.

    In the back of my mind I have always had a difficult time understanding why God would not save certain people (I clearly couldn’t hear them speaking in tongues), and why in some cases He would not give them the Holy Ghost for years after their conversion. If speaking in tongues was SO important to salvation, why wouldn’t God give it to someone right away? The answer I’ve always gotten is “they’re holding back and not fully broken or open to Him.” But again, I see grown men at the altar crying, snotting, shouting, begging, pleading, thanking God in advance, shaking, and allowing people to pat their chins real fast (as if that’s supposed to make them more susceptible to get it) – doing this for YEARS, and never getting “saved.”

    I do believe that everything I’ve been taught has been in the best of intentions, and these people truly believe it. I mean, I’ve been there. I’ve ostracized friends and family who were already Christians by telling them that they’re truly not saved and they will go to hell unless they do it the “Bible way.” I’ve travailed over backslidden friends who started attending one of those “dead” churches without the “Truth.” So, I get it. I can empathize with the beliefs.

    My husband and I had a meeting with our pastor today to tell him that we do not believe you have to receive tongues to be saved. My husband and I have prayed, fasted, studied, researched, and prayed some more. God has truly shown us that the evidence of the Holy Ghost is NOT tongues (not always, anyways). Our pastor kept referring to the “truth” when he showed us in the scriptures how “out of our bellies shall flow rivers of living water” and illustrated that with a bottle full of water and way over-emphasized hand gestures of it coming out of his mouth. He showed us the “truth” in everything he said. He mocked others’ experiences with God as being UN-true and having a spirit of anti-christ, simply because they did not speak in tongues, and were claiming to be saved. He showed us the “truth” when he referred to Cornelius and how he was a devout man, who loved God, but wasn’t saved, and HE spoke with tongues to get the Holy Ghost, and if all we had to do was “believe and repent” then Cornelius should have been saved already. We pointed out that Cornelius hadn’t received the revelation of who Jesus was and therefore was in the same boat as the Jews, and that’s why Peter preached to him. Yet, to prove his point, he said, “Well, he prayed to God, and we know that God is revealed in Jesus. So yes, he was praying to Jesus, so therefore he was a believer.” (I know, even as I typed that it made no sense) These are all “truths.” Yet, where IS the truth? They are part-to-whole fallacies!

    I am so sick of men building their own doctrines around “truth.” I am so tired of being told that because we are questioning “truth” that we are in danger of falling into a reprobate heart. How is something true if it can not be tested time and time again and get the same results??? Jesus never changed His message – and it stood TRUE. We can not twist the scriptures to fit our experiences. We must test our experiences against the TRUTH.

    I’m so thankful for your website. At first my husband and I felt so alone in this journey, but it’s wonderful to know that even though we are “backsliders” to the UPC doctrine, we belong into a body of truth-seekers and Jesus lovers. :) It’s a process, and our minds are still so programmed to see what we’ve been told to see in the scripture, but, scale-by-scale our eyes are being opened to the Truth.

    God bless you and your ministry!

  4. Preacher

     First Corinthians 13:8 mentions the gift of tongues ceasing, although it connects the ceasing with the arrival of the “perfect” in 1 Corinthians 13:10. There is a difference in the tense of the Greek verbs referring to prophecy and knowledge “ceasing” and that of tongues “being ceased” as evidence for tongues ceasing before the arrival of the “perfect.”
    While possible, this is not explicitly clear from the text. I will not put God in a box… but tongues is a language, not esthatic gibberish.
    There is also the Biblical point that in Isaiah 28:11 and Joel 2:28-29 tongues are evidence that was a sign of God’s oncoming judgment.
    First Corinthians 14:22 describes tongues as a “sign to unbelievers.” According to this, the gift of tongues was a warning to the Jews that God was going to judge Israel for rejecting Jesus Christ as Messiah. Therefore, when God did in fact judge Israel (with the destruction of Jerusalem by the Romans in A.D. 70), the gift of tongues would no longer serve its intended purpose.
    While not fully enguging in the cessation og the gift, there is Biblical evidence and standards for the use there of, as well as what it actually is. In Acts, these were not speakings of a bunch of mumbo-jumbo or gibberish, it was a known language and was interpreted.

    At the same time, if the gift of speaking in tongues were active in the church today, it would be performed in agreement with Scripture. It would be a real and intelligible language (1 Corinthians 14:10). It would be for the purpose of communicating God’s Word with a person of another language (Acts 2:6-12). It would be in agreement with the command God gave through the apostle Paul, “If anyone speaks in a tongue, two—or at the most three—should speak, one at a time, and someone must interpret. If there is no interpreter, the speaker should keep quiet in the church and speak to himself and God” (1 Corinthians 14:27-28). It would also be in accordance with 1 Corinthians 14:33, “For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints.”

    God most definitely can give a person the gift of speaking in tongues to enable him or her to communicate with a person who speaks another language. The Holy Spirit is sovereign in the dispersion of the spiritual gifts (1 Corinthians 12:11).
     
    But with that… Just imagine how much more productive missionaries could be if they did not have to go to language school, and were instantly able to speak to people in their own language. However, God does not seem to be doing this. Tongues does not seem to occur today in the manner it did in the New Testament, despite the fact that it would be immensely useful. The vast majority of believers who claim to practice the gift of speaking in tongues do not do so in agreement with the Scriptures mentioned above. These facts are what lead one to the conclusion that the gift of tongues has ceased or is at least a rarity in God’s plan for the church today.

    And just for the record…
    The Bible also tells us that the Holy Spirit is a divine person, a being with a mind, emotions, and a will.

    The fact that the Holy Spirit is God is clearly seen in many Scriptures, including Acts 5:3-4. In this verse Peter confronts Ananias as to why he lied to the Holy Spirit and tells him that he had “not lied to men but to God.” It is a clear declaration that lying to the Holy Spirit is lying to God. We can also know that the Holy Spirit is God because He possesses the characteristics of God. For example, His omnipresence is seen in Psalm 139:7-8, “Where can I go from your Spirit? Where can I flee from your presence? If I go up to the heavens, you are there; if I make my bed in the depths, you are there.” Then in 1 Corinthians 2:10-11, we see the characteristic of omniscience in the Holy Spirit. “But God has revealed it to us by his Spirit. The Spirit searches all things, even the deep things of God. For who among men knows the thoughts of a man except the man’s spirit within him? In the same way no one knows the thoughts of God except the Spirit of God.”

    We can know that the Holy Spirit is indeed a divine person because He possesses a mind, emotions, and a will. The Holy Spirit thinks and knows (1 Corinthians 2:10). The Holy Spirit can be grieved (Ephesians 4:30). The Spirit intercedes for us (Romans 8:26-27). He makes decisions according to His will (1 Corinthians 12:7-11). The Holy Spirit is God, the third Person of the Trinity. As God, the Holy Spirit can truly function as the Comforter and Counselor that Jesus promised He would be (John 14:16, 26, 15:26).

    It also stands to show that the church is always had her worst enemies from within and not from without…
    (Just a Thought)

    1. Josh (Site Admin) Post author

      Preacher,

      I normally don’t allow the type of post that you wrote because it can serve to be inflammatory (and it deals with some stuff that isn’t dealt with on this site–namely the Trinity and whether or not the gift of tongues has ceased). However, I really liked the way that you wrote it, and it does serve as food for thought, so I decided to let it through. I think it is good for people to see that the “tongues has ceased” argument does have a basis in Scripture. It’s not something that people just made up because they don’t like Pentecostals, or are against the Holy Ghost, or “the Truth,” etc etc etc.

      With that said, I am like you in that I don’t think the view that tongues has ceased is a conclusive one. It’s intriguing and it’s a good study, but I don’t think it’s clear cut. However, also like you, I refuse to put God in a box. If He wants to use tongues then He will, but if He does use it then it will be an actual language (I’m not going to cite the Scriptures to support that because you already did).

      Dealing with the Holy Spirit: Oneness Pentecostals will agree with you that the Holy Spirit is God, and even that He is a person. They would agree with everything you wrote about the Holy Spirit. Their disagreement is that He is separate from the Father or the Son. They view the Father, the Son, and the Spirit as all being the same person, and they view trinitarianism as tritheism. Basically the founders of the Oneness movement failed to understand the difference between a being and a person. They convoluted the terms. So while the doctrine of the Trinity states that the Father, Son, and Spirit are one Being but separate Persons, the doctrine of Oneness states that the Father, Son, and Spirit are one Being and one Person.

      To anyone who reads this: I keep a very tight rein on comments relating to the Trinity and the gift of tongues. Please remember to keep the comments on track. Those are very hot topics that aren’t dealt with on this site, so I’m careful to not let the comments turn into a giant debate forum. I decided to let Preacher’s comment through because I liked the way he summarized the “tongues has ceased” argument. I also liked the fact that he wasn’t adamant that it has ceased, and chose instead to let God do what God wants to do. If anyone wants to write in response please keep your comment in the same tone that he wrote his in.

      In Christ,
      – Josh S.

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